Why does the EU @eu_eeas keep talking about the nonexistent “pre-1967 borders” when they were explicitly never meant to be borders?

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Bron: Why does the EU @eu_eeas keep talking about the nonexistent “pre-1967 borders” when they were explicitly never meant to be borders?

In a press release on Monday denouncing Israel advancing a plan to build houses in Judea and Samaria, the EU stated – as it has literally hundreds of times before – “The European Union has consistently made clear that it will not recognise any changes to the pre-1967 borders, including with regard to Jerusalem, other than those agreed by both sides.”
The EU has used that phrase for as long as it has existed in its current form – literally hundreds of times. The specific language here is taken from a 2011 EU resolution supporting Palestinian statehood.
When resolutions such as that one are drafted, there are committees that meet for days or months crafting the language to be as precise as possible.
Why does the EU consistently refer to a set of borders that never existed?
Before 1967, Israel existed behind the 1949 armistice lines. Those lines were – at Arab insistence! – not borders.  The Jordanian-Israel agreement said, quite explicitly, “The Armistice Demarcation Lines defined in articles V and VI of this Agreement are agreed upon by the Parties without prejudice to future territorial settlements or boundary lines or to claims of either Party relating thereto.”
There was similar language in Israel’s agreement with Egypt. But that was superseded by the Israel-Egypt peace treaty, which did demarcate international borders between the two.
What about the lines between Jordan and Israel?